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The SBI PO Prelims Exam 2025 has begun, with the first day of the exam successfully conducted on 08 March 2025. Aspirants who appeared for the exam have shared valuable insights, helping us compile a memory-based paper that includes the most relevant and frequently asked questions. This SBI PO Prelims Memory Based Paper 2025 is crucial for candidates preparing for the upcoming exam dates on 16 March and 24 March 2025, as it provides a realistic preview of the types of questions they can expect.
SBI PO Prelims Memory Based Paper 2025
With the SBI PO Prelims 2025 exam ongoing, practicing memory-based questions from the 08 March shift can be a game-changer for candidates appearing on the remaining exam dates. The exam followed the updated pattern and was conducted in multiple shifts. These papers not only provide insight into question trends but also serve as a crucial tool to boost confidence and improve performance. Based on student feedback and expert analysis, the exam was of Moderate difficulty, with certain sections being more time-consuming than others.
SBI PO Prelims Memory Based Question Paper 2025 as a Mock test
Candidates preparing for the SBI PO Prelims can now attempt the SBI PO Prelims Memory Based Question Paper 2025 of Shift 1 of 8th March 2025 as a mock test from the link provided below. The attempt window is open from 3:00 PM on 08 March to 11:55 PM on 09 March, with the result declaration scheduled for 6:00 AM on 10 March 2025.
SBI PO Prelims Memory Based Question Paper 2025: Attempt Now (08th March, Shift 1)
SBI PO Prelims Memory Based Question Paper 2025 Download PDF
To assist candidates appearing for the upcoming shifts or exams, we have compiled the SBI PO Prelims Memory-Based Paper for 08 March 2025. This PDF includes a set of questions from all three sections based on actual student feedback. Candidates can download the PDF and start practicing to familiarize themselves with the question trends.
SBI PO Prelims Memory Based Question Paper 2025 | |
SBI PO Prelims Memory Based Question Paper 2025, 08th March, Shift 1 | Download PDF |
SBI PO Prelims Memory Based Question Paper 2025, 08th March, Shift 2 | Download PDF |
Some of the questions of SBI PO Prelims 08 March, Shift 1 are provided below:
English Language:
Q1. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of the words that can fit into the given blank at the same order so to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.
The company’s sudden announcement of layoffs was seen as _______ by many employees, who did not feel the decision had been _______ from the beginning.
(a) abrupt, predetermined
(b) strategic, unexpected
(c) transparent, concealed
(d) calculated, improvised
(e) reckless, justified
Q2. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of the words that can fit into the given blank at the same order so to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.
The government’s response to the economic crisis was widely criticized as _______ and only served to _______ public frustration.
(a) deliberate, intensify
(b) prudent, alleviate
(c) swift, suppress
(d) ineffectual, exacerbate
(e) measured, pacify
Q3. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of the words that can fit into the given blank at the same order so to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.
The athlete’s return to the field after a year-long injury was both _______ and _______, as fans wondered if he could regain his former strength.
(a) unexpected, reassuring
(b) anticipated, uncertain
(c) disappointing, celebrated
(d) inevitable, dismissed
(e) predictable, unnoticed
Q4. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of the words that can fit into the given blank at the same order so to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.
The whistleblower’s testimony was so _______ that it left lawmakers scrambling to _______ the allegations before they could gain further traction.
(a) uninformative, dismiss
(b) baseless, ignore
(c) damning, counter
(d) neutral, endorse
(e) unfounded, deny
Q5. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of the words that can fit into the given blank at the same order so to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.
The new scientific discovery was hailed as _______ but also met with skepticism, as researchers sought to _______ the results through further experiments.
(a) revolutionary, replicate
(b) trivial, ignore
(c) debatable, obscure
(d) conclusive, pacify
(e) marginal, amplify
Directions (6-12): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The corresponding letter of that part is the answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, then choose option ‘No error’ as your answer response. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
Q6. The pack of wolves (A)/ were seen roaming (B)/ near the deserted village (C)/ at dawn. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q7. She narrowly escaped (A)/ to fall into the (B)/ deep trench (C)/ near the cliff’s edge. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q8. Despite being warned (A)/ about the storm, he insisted (B)/ to go for a (C)/ late-night drive. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q9. He pretended (A)/ that he knows nothing (B)/ about the secret plan (C)/ discussed in the meeting. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q10. Not only he (A)/ ignore the warnings, (B)/ but he also (C)/ mocked the elders. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q11. She found (A)/ an unique solution (B)/ to the complex (C)/ logistical problem. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q12. The rebels planned (A)/ to blow out (B)/ the bridge before (C)/ reinforcements arrived. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Quantitative Aptitude
Direction (01-05): Read the information and answer the following questions.
The information is about the total people who like three different games i.e. volleyball, chess and cricket. The people who like only volleyball is (x+10) and people who like only chess is 15 less than that of Volleyball. People who like only cricket is 28. Average number of people who like only one game is 21. People who like all the games together is 50. The ratio of people who like volleyball and chess together and chess and cricket together is 1:2. Total people who like chess is 96.
Q01. Find the ratio of people who like only cricket and chess together to people who like only volleyball.
(a) 24:25
(b) 25:24
(c) 15:16
(d) 10:9
(e) 5:4
Q02. Find the difference between people who like only one game to people like all the games together.
(a) 20
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 12
(e) 14
Q03. The number of people who like only volleyball and cricket together is double the people who like only cricket. Find the people who like volleyball.
(a) 120
(b) 125
(c) 143
(d) 110
(e) 115
Q04. Find the value of x.
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 15
(d) 10
(e) 5
Q05. The ratio of male and female who like chess is 7:5, then females who like chess is what percentage more/less than the people who like all the games together.
(a) 20%
(b) 10%
(c) 90%
(d) 80%
(e) 25%
Q06. A is five consecutive even numbers series and B is five consecutive odd numbers series.
The third term of series A is 3 more than third term of series B. If sum of first term of both series is 397, then find the sum of third term of series A and B?
(a) 403
(b) 407
(c) 405
(d) 401
(e) 409
Q07. The area of a rectangle is 528 cm2 more than the area of a circle. And the ratio of length to breadth of the rectangle is 26 : 11. If radius of the circle is 711th of the breadth of the rectangle, then find the radius of circle (in cm)?
(a) 14
(b) 10.5
(c) 28
(d) 21
(e) 7
Q08. Ten years ago, the average age of A and B was 30 years. Eight years hence, the ratio of age of A to that of B will be 5 : 7. If the age of C five years ago was 79th of the age of B three years ago, then find the present age of C (in years):?
(a) 40
(b) 35
(c) 45
(d) 48
(e) 32
Direction (09-10). Following are the questions based on two statements and answer the following based on the given statements.
Q09. What will be respective ratio of saving of V & D.
- Income of V is 4% less than that of S and the ratio of expenditure of V to that of S is 7 : 8. D spend 35th of his income.
- S save Rs. 14000 and V saves Rs. 14800. Income of D is Rs. 2000 more than that of S.
(a) Only statement I is sufficient
(b) Only statement II is sufficient
(c) Statement I and II both together is sufficient
(d) Either statement I or Statement II alone is sufficient
(e) Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient
Q10. What is age of R after two years.
- Average age of A and N is 24 years and ratio of age of R to A is 2 : 3.
- N is 4 years elder than S and ratio of age of S to R is 1 : 2
(a) only statement I
(b) Only statement II
(c) Both I and II together
(d) Both statements together are not sufficient
(e) Either I or II alone
Reasoning Ability
Directions (01-05): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:
14 persons sit in two parallel rows in such a way that 7 persons sit in each row. B, C, D, E, F, G, H – sit in row 1 and face north while P, Q, R, S, T, U, V – sit in row 2 and face south. The persons do not sit in the given order. The persons of both rows face each other.
T faces the one who sits third to the left of G. Number of persons to the left of G is one more than the number of persons to the right of P. The one who faces P sits immediate right of B. F neither sits at the extreme ends nor adjacent to G. More than two persons sit between F and the one who faces V. Number of persons sit between T and V is same as the number of persons sit between D and E. S sits third to the right of Q. Two persons sit between C and D who sits opposite to R.
Q01. Four of the following five are similar in a certain manner and related to a group, who among the following is not related to the group?
(a) U
(b) V
(c) H
(d) D
(e) R
Q02. How many persons sit between U and the one who faces F?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five
Q03. What is the position of H with respect to the one who sits opposite to S?
(a) Second to the right
(b) Immediate left
(c) Fourth to the right
(d) Fourth to the left
(e) Third to the right
Q04. Which of the following statement is true?
- Four persons sit to the right of U
- E sits immediate right of G
III. F is the only neighbor of H
(a) Only II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only III
(d) Only I
(e) Only I and II
Q05. If V is related to E, P is related to B, in the similar way, Q is related to whom?
(a) G
(b) D
(c) F
(d) H
(e) C
Directions (06-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I – are placed one above the other but not necessarily in the same order. At most two boxes are placed above the box A. Two boxes are placed between box A and box H. Box E is placed adjacent to box H. The number of boxes placed between box A and box E is two less than the number of boxes placed between box E and box G. Box B is placed just above box D which is two places above the box C. Box F is placed two places above box I.
Q06. How many boxes are placed between Box G and Box A?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five
Q07. Which of the following boxes is placed at the topmost position?
(a) A
(b) G
(c) B
(d) F
(e) H
Q08. Which box is placed exactly between Box F and Box C?
(a) B
(b) G
(c) H
(d) D
(e) E
Q09. What is the correct position of Box E from the topmost position?
(a) Fourth
(b) Fifth
(c) Sixth
(d) Seventh
(e) Eighth
Q10. If box E is related to box B and box H is related to box D then in the same way which box is related to box I?
(a) Box A
(b) Box F
(c) Box C
(d) Box H
(e) Box G
Why Are SBI PO Prelims Memory-Based Papers Important?
Memory-based papers play a significant role in SBI PO preparation. They provide an accurate representation of the question pattern, difficulty level, and key topics asked in the exam. These papers help aspirants:
- Understand the latest question trends and difficulty level.
- Identify important topics across Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, and English Language.
- Improve time management and accuracy by solving actual exam-level questions.
- Gain confidence by practicing real exam questions before the upcoming shifts.