Home   »   English Quizzes For IBPS PO Mains...

English Quizzes For IBPS PO Mains 2022- 22nd October

Directions (1-5): Given below are four sentences which are divided into several parts. Answer the following questions based on these given statements.

(A) In most developing countries over the past 30 years(1)/ according to the Food and Agriculture Organisation (2)/ has resulted in low productivity and stagnant production(3)/ insufficient investment in the agriculture sector (4)

(B) In the Economic Survey this year (1)/ a $5-trillion economy by 2024 is now in the open (2)/with a ‘blue sky’ vision envisaged (3)/ India’s dream of becoming (4)

(C) Investments reforms in primary sectors (1)/ however, unless there are adequate (2)/ growth in other sectors would be futile (3)/step taken to augment (4)

(D) The document lays down a clear strategy to augment (1)/ in terms of macroeconomic stability to expand growth (2)/ as the current economic conditions are smooth (3)/ the growth of key sectors by shifting gears (4)

Q1. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the rearrangement of the sentence (A)?
(a) 1432
(b) 4123
(c) 2413
(d) 3412
(e) None of these.

Q2. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the rearrangement of the sentence (C)?
(a) 1432
(b) 2143
(c) 4213
(d) 3412
(e) None of these.

Q3. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the rearrangement of the sentence (B)?
(a) 1432
(b) 2143
(c) 4231
(d) 3412
(e) None of these.

Q4. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the rearrangement of the sentence (D)?
(a) 1432
(b) 2143
(c) 2413
(d) 3412
(e) None of these.

Q5. Rearrange the given four sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and also choose the one which doesn’t match the theme of the passage so formed.
(a) DBA; C
(b) CBA; D
(c) BDC; A
(d) ACD; B
(e) None of these.

Directions (6-10): In the questions below a statement is given with two blanks in it. For each blank three alternatives are provided in the columns. Choose the alternative from the corresponding column that would fit the give blanks to make the given sentence grammatically correct and contextually meaningful.

Q6. Turkey has been a long-standing member of the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation and a/an ______[I]_______ part of the American-led alliance whose principal goal was and continues to be to prevent the _______[II]______ of Russian influence and power.

English Quizzes For IBPS PO Mains 2022- 22nd October_3.1

(a) B-E
(b) C-D
(c) A-F
(d) C-F
(e) A-E

Q7. Pegasus is an invasive tool that can reportedly ______[I]_______ on a target’s cell phone camera and microphone, and access data on it, ______[II]_______ turning the phone into a pocket spy

English Quizzes For IBPS PO Mains 2022- 22nd October_4.1

(a) B-D
(b) C-E
(c) A-F
(d) C-F
(e) A-D

Q8. The forensic audit report on credit rating agencies (CRAs) of IL&FS has alleged serious ______[I]_______ on the part of such agencies that had concerns related to the ______[II]_______ of the entity way back in 2012 but chose to downgrade ratings only in 2018.

English Quizzes For IBPS PO Mains 2022- 22nd October_5.1

(a) B-D
(b) C-E
(c) A-F
(d) C-F
(e) A-E

Q9. India’s dream of ________[I]_______ a $5-trillion economy by 2024 is now in the open with a ‘blue sky’ vision ________[II]_______ in the Economic Survey this year.

English Quizzes For IBPS PO Mains 2022- 22nd October_6.1

(a) B-D
(b) C-E
(c) A-E
(d) C-F
(e) A-D

Q10. With the Supreme Court-led process of ________[I]_______ the National Register of Citizens in Assam nearing its deadline of July 31, the ________[II]________ involved in the gargantuan exercise have dawned upon the executive.

English Quizzes For IBPS PO Mains 2022- 22nd October_7.1

(a) B-E
(b) C-E
(c) A-F
(d) C-F
(e) C-D

Directions (1-15): In each of the questions given below a sentence is given which is then divided into five parts out of which one part is given bold and correct . There are errors in three out of four remaining parts and therefore only one of the parts (other than the bold one) is correct. You must choose the grammatically correct part as your answer.

Q11. The little dog’s tail is a happy blur(A)/, his nose quiver with anticipation, till he stops(B)/ and paws the ground exact once(C)/. He has discovered one growing just under the surface(D)/, and is immediately rewarding for it with a treat(E).
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
(e) None of the above

Q12. An official aware of the development said(A)/ that although the data will be capture for all(B)/ transactions irrespective of the size of(C)/ the transactions, the large once(D)/ would be relevance for enforcement purposes(E).
(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
(e) None of the above

Q13. Einstein’s understanding of gravity, as outline(A)/ in his general theory of relativity(B)/, predicts that all objects fall(C)/ at the same rate, regardless in(D)/ there mass or composition(E).
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) None of the above

Q14. The documentary’s position is cleared(A)/, but the lens is always sympathetic(B)/. At all times, it pose(C)/ questions and offers(D)/ few judgmentals’(E).
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
(e) None of the above

Q15. She insists that even(A)/ though many people in the two villages demonstrate unquestioning(B)/ believe in the existence of Saraswati, it isn’t(C)/ necessary a case of foolish(D)/ villagers being took for a ride(E).
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) None of the above

Solutions

S1. Ans. (c)
Sol. The first part in the arrangement will be (2) because it is the most appropriate starter of the sentence which then be followed by (4) which is expressing the views of the Food and Agriculture Organization. The next sentence in the arrangement will be (1) followed by (3) to make a meaningful sentence. Hence the correct arrangement is 2413.

S2. Ans. (b)
Sol. The first part in the arrangement will be (2) because it is the only viable starter. Next in the arrangement will be (1) or (4) but the use of (4) will make the sentence grammatically incorrect. So the second part in the arrangement will be (1) which will be later followed by (4) and (3) to make a meaningful sentence. Hence, the correct option choice would be option (b)

S3. Ans. (c)
Sol. First part in the arrangement could be either (4) or (1) but choosing (1) as the starting of the sentence will hinder the sentence structure. So, we will start the sentence with (4). Next in the arrangement will be (2) because it is describing about the India’s dream, this will be later followed by (3) and (1) to make a meaningful sentence. Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (c)

S4. Ans. (a)
Sol. In the given sentence, only option only (1) is the most viable starter of the given sentence. This will be later followed by (4) because it is forms a coherent part of the sentence as, ‘strategy to augment the growth of’. Next in the arrangement will be (3) followed by (2). Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (a)

S5. Ans. (c)
Sol. The correct sequence of the rearrangement will be BDC. However, sentence (A) fails to make coherent sense with the passage because the remaining sentences are discussing about the economy of the India and steps to be taken to achieve the desired goal and sentence (A) is discussing about the reason for low productivity in agricultural sector. Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (c)

S6. Ans. (c)
Sol. Integral means necessary to make a whole complete; essential or fundamental.
Mandatory means required by law or mandate; compulsory.
Sanctions mean a threatened penalty for disobeying a law or rule.
Impinge means to have an effect on something, often causing problems by limiting it in some way
Distinguished means very successful, authoritative, and commanding great respect.
Hence, the correct combination of word to fill the given blanks would be option (c)

S7. Ans. (b)
Sol. Pious means sincere but unlikely to be fulfilled
Ripen means become or make ripe.
Imminent means about to happen.
Deter means prevent the occurrence of.
So, from the given options, only option (b) will fill the given blanks to make the given sentences both grammatically and contextually correct. Hence, the correct choice would be option (b)

S8. Ans. (e)
Sol. Lapses means a decline from previously high standards.
Brawl means fight or quarrel in a rough or noisy way.
Lofty means of a noble or elevated nature.
Hauled means propel or pull oneself with difficulty.
So, from the given options, only option (e) will fill the given blanks to make the given sentences both grammatically and contextually correct. Hence, the correct choice would be option (e)

S9. Ans. (c)
Sol. Evokes means bring or recall to the conscious mind.
Envisaged means contemplate or conceive of as a possibility or a desirable future event.
Devious means showing a skilful use of underhand tactics to achieve goals.
So, from the given options, only option (c) will fill the given blanks to make the given sentences both grammatically and contextually correct. Hence, the correct choice would be option (c)

S10. Ans. (e)
Sol. Altercate means dispute or argue noisily and publicly.
Duping means to deceive someone, usually by making that person do something that they did not intend to do
Doctrine means a belief or set of beliefs held and taught by a Church, political party, or other group.
Perspicuous means clearly expressed and easily understood; lucid
So, from the given options, only option (e) will fill the given blanks to make the given sentences both grammatically and contextually correct. Hence, the correct choice would be option (e)

S11. Ans.(a)
Sol. Part (B) Replace ‘quiver’ with ‘quivering
Part (C) Replace ‘exact’ with ‘exactly
Part (E) Replace ‘rewarding’ with ‘rewarded
Thus, part (A) is correct.

S12. Ans.(a)
Sol. Part (B) Replace ‘capture’ with ‘captured
Part (D) Replace ‘once’ with ‘ones
Part (E) Replace ‘relevance’ with ‘relevant
Thus, part (A) is correct.

S13. Ans.(b)
Sol. Part (A) Replace ‘outline’ with ‘outlined
Part (D) Replace ‘in’ with ‘of
Part (E) Replace ‘there’ with ‘their
Thus, part (C) is correct.

S14. Ans.(b)
Sol. Part (A) Replace ‘cleared’ with ‘clear
Part (C) Replace ‘pose’ with ‘poses
Part (E) Replace ‘judgmentals’’ with ‘judgments’’
Thus, part (B) is correct.

S15. Ans.(a)
Sol. Part (C) Replace ‘believe’ with ‘belief
Part (D) Replace ‘necessary’ with ‘necessarily
Part (E) Replace ‘took’ with ‘taken
Thus, part (A) is correct.

English Quizzes For ESIC- UDC, Steno, MTS Prelims 2022: 8th January_70.1

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For ESIC- UDC, Steno, MTS Prelims 2022-21st January_150.1

Test Prime For All Exams 2024