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The SBI PO Prelims Exam 2025 was conducted on 08 March, and candidates who appeared for Shift 1 faced a new pattern in the English Language section. This year, the total number of English questions increased from 30 to 40, making it crucial for aspirants to adjust their strategies accordingly. The difficulty level of the English section in Shift 1 is moderate, with a mix of vocabulary-based and comprehension-based questions. Below, we provide English Questions Asked in SBI PO Prelims Exam 2025, helping aspirants understand the types of questions and their difficulty levels.
English Questions Asked in SBI PO Prelims Exam 2025
The English section of SBI PO Prelims Exam 2025 followed a moderate difficulty level, with a well-balanced mix of reading comprehension, grammar, and vocabulary-based questions. Candidates faced 40 questions in this section, making accuracy and time management crucial. Below, we have compiled memory-based questions from Shift 1, 08 March 2025, which will help aspirants understand the exam pattern, difficulty level and types of questions asked. Reviewing these questions will aid in better preparation for upcoming shifts and future banking exams.
Q1. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of the words that can fit into the given blank at the same order so to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.
The company’s sudden announcement of layoffs was seen as _______ by many employees, who did not feel the decision had been _______ from the beginning.
(a) abrupt, predetermined
(b) strategic, unexpected
(c) transparent, concealed
(d) calculated, improvised
(e) reckless, justified
Q2. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of the words that can fit into the given blank at the same order so to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.
The government’s response to the economic crisis was widely criticized as _______ and only served to _______ public frustration.
(a) deliberate, intensify
(b) prudent, alleviate
(c) swift, suppress
(d) ineffectual, exacerbate
(e) measured, pacify
Q3. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of the words that can fit into the given blank at the same order so to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.
The athlete’s return to the field after a year-long injury was both _______ and _______, as fans wondered if he could regain his former strength.
(a) unexpected, reassuring
(b) anticipated, uncertain
(c) disappointing, celebrated
(d) inevitable, dismissed
(e) predictable, unnoticed
Q4. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of the words that can fit into the given blank at the same order so to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.
The whistleblower’s testimony was so _______ that it left lawmakers scrambling to _______ the allegations before they could gain further traction.
(a) uninformative, dismiss
(b) baseless, ignore
(c) damning, counter
(d) neutral, endorse
(e) unfounded, deny
Q5. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of the words that can fit into the given blank at the same order so to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.
The new scientific discovery was hailed as _______ but also met with skepticism, as researchers sought to _______ the results through further experiments.
(a) revolutionary, replicate
(b) trivial, ignore
(c) debatable, obscure
(d) conclusive, pacify
(e) marginal, amplify
Directions (6-12): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The corresponding letter of that part is the answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, then choose option ‘No error’ as your answer response. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
Q6. The pack of wolves (A)/ were seen roaming (B)/ near the deserted village (C)/ at dawn. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q7. She narrowly escaped (A)/ to fall into the (B)/ deep trench (C)/ near the cliff’s edge. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q8. Despite being warned (A)/ about the storm, he insisted (B)/ to go for a (C)/ late-night drive. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q9. He pretended (A)/ that he knows nothing (B)/ about the secret plan (C)/ discussed in the meeting. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q10. Not only he (A)/ ignore the warnings, (B)/ but he also (C)/ mocked the elders. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q11. She found (A)/ an unique solution (B)/ to the complex (C)/ logistical problem. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q12. The rebels planned (A)/ to blow out (B)/ the bridge before (C)/ reinforcements arrived. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Directions (13-21): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
With the United States recently lifting its ban on online betting, the digital gambling landscape has experienced a significant paradigm shift, redefining the intersection between technology and wagering. Once constrained by stringent regulations, platforms facilitating poker, online casinos, and sports betting are now flourishing, attracting an influx of new participants, particularly among the youth. This legislative reversal has catalyzed a global ripple effect, influencing betting dynamics in Europe and beyond. In response to this shift, several companies are launching innovative gambling platforms to capitalize on the growing demand.
Unlike traditional casinos, which rely on physical establishments, online betting platforms leverage advanced digital algorithms, artificial intelligence, and blockchain technology to ensure seamless transactions and enhanced security. The immediacy of placing wagers from mobile applications, coupled with the gamification of betting interfaces, has rendered the experience far more engaging than conventional casino gambling. Furthermore, the integration of live-streaming services within sports betting platforms has heightened real-time interaction, thereby allowing users to engage with the experience in ways never seen before.
One of the most pronounced impacts of this digital transition is the surge in sports engagement. With online betting becoming more accessible, the younger demographic is demonstrating a heightened interest in various athletic competitions, including football, basketball, and eSports. Europe, a longstanding hub for both regulated gambling and sports culture, has particularly benefited from this trend. Increased viewership and participation in sporting events, coupled with a surge in revenue streams for clubs and leagues, have fortified the economic structure of professional athletics. Moreover, the adoption of responsible gambling initiatives across European jurisdictions has helped mitigate some of the potential downsides of digital wagering.
However, despite these apparent advantages, the rapid expansion of online betting carries inherent risks. The accessibility and anonymity afforded by digital gambling platforms can foster addictive behaviors, particularly among impressionable youth. A lack of financial literacy among new bettors exacerbates the potential for substantial monetary losses, while the gamified nature of online casinos may obscure the psychological toll of compulsive gambling. If left unchecked, what was once a recreational activity can quickly devolve into a destructive vice, draining financial resources and leading to social isolation. Additionally, concerns surrounding data privacy, fraudulent schemes, and unregulated markets persist, raising ethical questions about the long-term sustainability of online betting.
As the online gambling industry continues to evolve, striking a balance between economic benefits and responsible gaming policies will be paramount. Without adequate safeguards, the societal costs of unchecked digital betting could outweigh its economic and recreational merits.
Q13. Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage?
(I) The legalization of online betting in the United States has influenced global betting trends, including in Europe.
(II) Traditional casinos are becoming obsolete due to the growing popularity of online gambling platforms.
(III) The integration of technology, such as AI and blockchain, has improved security in online gambling.
(a) Only (II)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)
Q14. Which of the following is a concern regarding online betting, based on the passage?
(a) Traditional casinos will completely disappear in the near future.
(b) Online gambling companies may manipulate algorithms to increase losses.
(c) The increased engagement in sports may create biased betting outcomes.
(d) A lack of proper financial education may lead to severe monetary losses for new bettors.
(e) Governments will completely ban online betting again due to its risks.
Q15. Identify the INCORRECT statement based on the passage.
(a) The U.S. legalization of online betting has influenced global gambling trends, impacting regulations and betting dynamics in other countries.
(b) Online gambling companies have successfully eliminated gambling addiction through AI-driven detection and prevention systems.
(c) The passage highlights that gamification in digital betting can make gambling more addictive by obscuring its long-term consequences.
(d) Both A and B
(e) All are incorrect
Q16. Identify the correct synonym for “engage” based on its usage in the passage.
(a) Capture
(b) Captivate
(c) Emerge
(d) Replace
(e) Evolve
Q17. Based on the passage, how has the U.S. decision to legalize online betting impacted global gambling trends?
(a) It has primarily benefited U.S. sports leagues, while the global gambling industry remains unaffected due to differing regulatory structures.
(b) The passage suggests that U.S. legalization has caused a worldwide increase in problem gambling, overwhelming responsible gambling initiatives.
(c) The ripple effect of this decision has influenced European markets by increasing sports engagement and enhancing revenue streams for clubs and leagues.
(d) The passage implies that U.S. legalization has had minimal influence outside its borders, as most online gambling companies operate independently of U.S. laws.
(e) The global sports industry has opposed this change, fearing that the rise of online betting could reduce traditional in-person viewership.
Q18. What potential risk associated with online betting does the passage emphasize the most?
(a) The complete lack of gambling regulations worldwide, which has allowed fraudulent activities to flourish.
(b) The psychological and financial dangers of unchecked digital gambling, particularly among young and inexperienced users.
(c) The negative impact of online betting on professional sports, leading to a decline in revenue and viewership.
(d) The erosion of traditional casino culture due to the increasing preference for digital betting platforms.
(e) The long-term economic instability of online gambling companies due to increasing competition and market saturation.
Q19. Which of the following words is the closest in meaning to the opposite of “vice” as used in the passage?
(a) Corruption
(b) Virtue
(c) Immorality
(d) Sin
(e) Depravity
Q20. Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage?
(I) The reversal of online betting laws in the U.S. has only influenced gambling trends in the country itself.
(II) The integration of live-streaming within sports betting platforms has transformed how users engage with betting.
(III) Online betting platforms integrate live-streaming services to enhance real-time engagement.
(a) Only (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) All (I), (II), and (III)
(e) Only (I)
Q21. Which of the following words is the closest in meaning to “launching” as used in the passage?
(a) Terminating
(b) Initiating
(c) Encouraging
(d) Preponing
(e) Withdrawing
Directions (22-25): In each of the questions given below a sentence is given with three words in bold. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of these words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
Q22. The ancient temple torrential (A) under the relentless force of the majestic (B) rain, leaving only fragments of its once crumbled (C) structure scattered across the valley.
(a) ACB
(b) CAB
(c) BAC
(d) BCA
(e) No rearrangement required
Q23. The commander’s pivotal (A) to launch the offensive (B) at dawn cost the army a reluctance (C) strategic advantage in the battle.
(a) CBA
(b) ACB
(c) BAC
(d) CAB
(e) No rearrangement required
Q24. The detective’s astute (A) observations led to a crucial (B) clue that unraveled (C) the mystery.
(a) CAB
(b) ACB
(c) BAC
(d) BCA
(e) No rearrangement required
Q25. The leader’s resilient (A) attitude in adversity (B) motivated his team to face challenges with fearless (C) determination.
(a) BCA
(b) CAB
(c) ACB
(d) BAC
(e) No rearrangement required
Directions (26-30): Rearrange the following statements to form a coherent paragraph and the answer the given questions.
(A) Their persistent efforts led to a remarkable transformation, ensuring a steady water supply and revitalizing local farming.
(B) In the 1990s, the crisis deepened, prompting a group of determined women to take matters into their own hands by developing innovative irrigation techniques.
(C) Additionally, policymakers announced the formulation of new programs aimed at furthering women’s empowerment in rural areas.
(D) Recognizing their contribution, the government not only praised their work but also introduced incentives to support their initiatives.
(E) This inspiring movement has set a precedent for sustainable development and gender-inclusive progress in the region.
(F) For decades, a village struggled with severe water shortages, impacting agriculture and daily life.
Q26. Which of the following is the correct sequence after rearrangement?
(a) FABCED
(b) FBADCE
(c) BAECDF
(d) FADCEB
(e) BCDEAF
Q27. Which of the following is the FIRST statement after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) F
(e) E
Q28. Which of the following is the FIFTH statement after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q29. Which of the following is the THIRD statement after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) F
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q30. Which of the following is the LAST statement after rearrangement?
(a) F
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Directions (31-32): In each question two columns are given, each containing three phrases/sentences. Choose the option that will connect the phrases to form meaningful and correct sentences.
Q31.
Column I
- Struggling to navigate the stormy seas,
- The unexpected turn of events
- Enduring the relentless hardships,
Column II
- they refused to abandon hope.
- left the entire nation in shock.
- he emerged stronger than before.
(a) A-D
(b) B-D
(c) C-F
(d) A-E
(e) Both A-D and C-F
Q32.
Column I
- Concealing his growing frustration,
- The sudden betrayal of his closest ally
- Fiercely resisting the oppressive rule,
Column II
- was an act of defiance
- shattered his faith in loyalty
- was rolling hills in a warm glow
(a) A-D
(b) A-E
(c) C-F
(d) B-E
(e) Both A-D and B-E
Directions (33-38): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been denoted by letters. For each blank, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate word from the options that fits the blank appropriately.
Black pepper, often referred to as the “king of spices,” ________ (A) an essential component of cuisines worldwide and has been used for centuries in both culinary and medicinal practices. It ________ (B) originally cultivated in South Asia, particularly in India, where it thrives in humid, tropical climates. The distinctive aroma of black pepper _________ (C) from its volatile oils, especially piperine, which contributes to its pungency and potential health benefits.
Although black pepper __________ (D) widely used today, historical records indicate that it __________ (E) once considered a luxury item, traded as currency in ancient markets. To preserve its full flavor, whole peppercorns are often preferred over ground pepper, as grinding __________ (F) its essential oils to dissipate over time.
In recent years, the rising global demand and fluctuating agricultural yields have led to an increase in the price of black pepper, making it more expensive than before. To maximize its freshness, black pepper should be stored in an airtight container away from heat and moisture. Whether used as a seasoning or a medicinal remedy, black pepper remains one of the most widely consumed spices in the world.
Q33. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank A.
(a) remains
(b) signifies
(c) denotes
(d) embodies
(e) constitutes
Q34. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank B.
(a) is
(b) has
(c) had been
(d) was being
(e) was
Q35. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank C.
(a) emerge
(b) derives
(c) originates
(d) stems
(e) exudes
Q36. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank D.
(a) is
(b) was
(c) has been
(d) had been
(e) will be
Q37. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank E.
(a) has
(b) was
(c) had
(d) is
(e) are
Q38. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank F.
(a) causes
(b) had caused
(c) has caused
(d) cause
(e) will cause
Directions (39-40): Which of the following phrases given below the sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark “No correction required” as the answer.
Q39. Despite of the heavy storm, the fishermen decided to set sail early in the morning.
(a) Despite the heavy storm
(b) In spite the heavy storm
(c) Even despite the heavy storm
(d) Although of the heavy storm
(e) No correction required
Q40. Had he known about the crisis, he would help his colleagues before leaving.
(a) he would had helped
(b) he would helped
(c) he will help
(d) he would have helped
(e) No correction required
English Section Analysis of 08 March
The English section in the first shift tested candidates on multiple topics, with a strong focus on reading comprehension, grammar, and vocabulary.
English Section Shift 1, 08 March:
The English section of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (Shift 1- 08 March) was moderate in difficulty, with a mix of vocabulary, grammar, and comprehension-based questions. The increase in the number of questions from 30 to 40 made time management crucial.
The Reading Comprehension passage on lifting the ban on betting was of moderate difficulty, with two synonym-based questions. Grammar-focused sections like Error Detection and Phrase Replacement were easy to moderate, while Para Jumbles and Double Fillers required strong vocabulary and logical skills. The Cloze Test was the easiest and helped candidates secure marks quickly. Overall, a well-balanced section that tested reading ability, language proficiency, and grammar knowledge, with vocabulary-based questions being slightly challenging.
- The increase in question count from 30 to 40 required better time management.
- Vocabulary-based questions, such as double fillers and synonyms, were slightly tough.
- Grammar and comprehension-based questions were easy to moderate.
- Cloze Test and Para Jumbles were scoring topics.
English Section Shift 2, 08 March:
The English section of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (Shift 2, 08 March) was of moderate difficulty, with a strong focus on comprehension and vocabulary. The Reading Comprehension passage on Inflation had 12 questions, including 3 vocabulary-based and 1 filler question, making it slightly tricky. The Cloze Test (on Superfood) was relatively easy, while Para Jumbles were a bit confusing. Error Detection and Phrase Replacement had 4-5 and 2-3 questions, respectively, testing candidates’ grammar skills. Word Arrangement, Match the Column, and Word Usage also appeared, emphasizing contextual understanding. Overall, the section was balanced, but vocabulary-based questions made it challenging for some aspirants.
English Section Shift 3, 08 March:
The English section of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (Shift 3, 08 March) was moderate, with a mix of grammar and vocabulary-based questions. The Reading Comprehension passage on Toy Manufacturing had 10 questions, testing candidates on inference and contextual meaning. Error Detection (Correct/Incorrect sentences) had 6 questions, assessing grammatical accuracy. The Cloze Test (6 questions) was straightforward, while Phrase Replacement (4-5 questions) required a good grasp of sentence structure. Sentence Rearrangement (5 questions) was of moderate level, and Double Fillers (5 questions) tested vocabulary strength. The Word Swap (4 questions) added a vocabulary challenge, making the section manageable but tricky for those weak in word usage.
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