English Language Quiz For Bank Mains Exams 2021- 9th February

Directions (1-5): Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) ,(E), (F)and (G) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

A. If it was a deeply distressing or disturbing time in your life, you are allowed to have feelings about it.
B. This is true for most situations. There is almost always something worse that could have happened.
C. The point is not how easy you got off, it is how the situation impacted you. How it impacted your life and the lives of your loved ones. How it still remains with you.
D. People do not want to take on the label because it is embarrassing or because they think, “Others have had it worse, who am I to complain?
E. Many people brush away the wounds of their past by saying, “It could have been worse.”
F. It looks different for different people. It impacts different people differently.
G. Many people want to downplay the impact that a traumatic event has had on them.

Q1. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a)A
(b)B
(c)C
(d)D
(e)E

Q2. Which of the following would be the LAST (SEVENTH) sentence after rearrangement?
(a)C
(b)B
(c) A
(d)D
(e)E

Q3. Which of the following would be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) B
(d) G
(e) F

Q4. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) G

Q5. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) F
(d) D
(e) E

Directions (6-10): Sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from amongst the five choices given to construct a paragraph.

Q6. (i) The necessity for regional integration in South Asia is underlined by the very history of the last 45 years since the liquidation of the British Empire in this part of the world.
A. After the partition of the Indian Subcontinent, Pakistan was formed in that very area which the imperial powers had always marked out as the potential base for operations against the Russian power in Central Asia.
B. Because of the disunity and ill-will among the South Asian neighbours, particularly India and Pakistan, the great powers from outside the area could meddle into their affairs and thereby keep neighbours apart.
C. It needs to be added that it was the bountiful supply of sophisticated arms that emboldened Pakistan to go for war like bellicosity towards India.
D. As a part of the Cold War strategy of the U.S., Pakistan was sucked into Washington’s military al liance spreading over the years.
(iv) Internally too, it was the massive induction of American arms into Pakistan which empowered the military junta of that country to stuff out the civilian government and destroy democracy in Pakistan.
(a) ACBD
(b) ABDC
(c) CBAD
(d) DCAB
(e) ABCD

Q7. (i) Commercial energy consumption shows an increasing trend and poses a major challenge for the future.
A. The demand for petroleum during 1996-97 and 2006-07 is anticipated to be 81 million tonnes and 125 million tonnes respectively.
B. According to the projections of the 14th Power Survey Committee Report, the electricity generation requirement from utilities will be about 415 billion units by 1996-97 and 824 billion units by 2006-07.
C. The production of coal should reach 303 million tonnes by 1996-97 to achieve Plan targets and 460 million tonnes by 2006-07.
D. The demand for petroleum products has already outstripped indigenous production.
(vi) Electricity is going to play a major role in the development of infrastructural facilities.
(a) DACB
(b) CADB
(c) BADC
(d) ABCD
(e) DCBA

Q8. (i) Count Rumford is perhaps best known for his observations on the nature of heat.
A. He undertook several experiments in order to test the theories of the origin of frictional heat.
B. According to the calorists, the heat was produced by the “caloric” squeezed out of the chips in the process of separating them from the larger pieces of metal.
C. Lavoisier had introduced the term “caloric” for the weightless substance heat, and had included it among the chemical elements along with carbon, nitrogen and oxygen.
D. In the ammunitions factory in Munich, Rumford noticed that a considerable degree of heat developed in a brass gun while it was being bored.
(vi) Rumford could not believe that the amount of heat generated could have come from the small amount of dust created.
(a) ADCB
(b) CBDA
(c) ACDB
(d) CDAB
(e) DCBA

Q9. (i) The death of cinema has been predicted annually.
A. It hasn’t happened.
B. It was said that the television would kill it off and indeed audiences plummeted, reaching a low in 1984.
C. Film has enjoyed a renaissance, and audiences are roughly double of what they were a decade ago.
D. Then the home computer became the projected nemesis followed by satellite television.
(vi) Why? Probably because even in the most atomised of societies, we human beings feel the need to share our fantasies and our excitement.
(a) CADB
(b) BDAC
(c) ABDC
(d) DABC
(e) ABCD

Q10. (i) The idea of sea-floor spreading preceded the theory of plate tectonics.
A. The hypothesis was soon substantiated by the discovery that periodic reversals of the earth’s magnetic field are recorded in the oceanic crust.
B. In its original version, it described the creation and destruction of the ocean floor, but it did not specify rigidity.
C. An explanation of this process devised by F. J. Vine and D. H. Mattews of Princeton is now generally accepted.
D. The sea-floor spreading hypothesis was formulated chiefly by Harry H. Hess of Princeton University in the early 1960s.
(vi) As magma rises under the mid-ocean ridge, ferromagnetic minerals in the magma become magnetised in the direction of the geomagnetic field.
(a) DCBA
(b) ABDC
(c) CBDA
(d) DBAC
(e) ABCD

Directions (11-15):Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. If none implies, choose (e) as your answer.

Q11. Full engagement begins with feeling eager to get to work in the morning, equally happy to return home in the evening and capable of setting clear boundaries between the two. It means being able to immerse yourself in the mission you are on, whether that is grappling with a creative challenge at work, managing a group of people on a project, spending time with loved ones or simply having fun.
(a) However, full engagement entails compromising with or ignoring some less important work.
(b) Full engagement implies a fundamental shift in the way we live our lives.
(c) This is, however, not possible for everyone to effect.
(d) This requires a relentless ooze of energy for not just the whole day but the whole life.
(e) None of these.

Q12. To some people, strategy is a position, namely the locating of particular products in particular markets. To others, strategy is a perspective, namely an organisation’s fundamental way of doing things. The problem is that eventually situations change – environments destabilize, niches disappear, and opportunities open up. Then all that is constructive about an established strategy becomes a liability.
(a) That is why, even though the concept of strategy is rooted in stability, so much of the study of strategy focuses on change.
(b) And in such a situation, adapting strategy to the conditions changing at dizzying rates becomes all the more difficult.
(c) And in such a destabilizing condition, evolving strategy gets reduced to managing changes.
(d) Thus, a strategy holds good provided things remain in status quo.
(e) None of these.

Q13. If you want to lead people, you need to know them: their unique strengths, aspirations, and patterns of behaviour. If you want to manage work, you need to see what people are doing and understand how it fits into the context of the group’s mission. Regular one-on-one help create a stable relationship between managers and team members, and help you learn about problems early.
(a) If problems snowball relations once regarded stable, sever.
(b) Only such an intimate interpersonal interaction helps tide over a problem.
(c) A leader is often a visualiser and knows the propriety and possibility of a particular job getting executed.
(d) Learning about problems early leads to early solutions instead of crisis management.
(e) None of these.

Q14. The reforms have made it possible for many more lndians to dream of a better life. But they are so busy chasing this eminently achievable goal that they are simply not inclined to participate in the political process. Most of the beneficiaries of the reforms probably don’t vote, and no one has managed to channel them into a vocal lobby.
(a) Elections results are, thus, not representative of all sections of eligible voters.
(b) Political obligations and personal dreams seem antithetical to each other.
(c) As a result, elections keep coming across as referendums against reforms.
(d) People have realized that the political tantrum called election can never help fulfill their dreams.
(e) None of these.

Q15. Benchmarking certainly has its virtues. Comparing production time or the cost of a standard process to that of peer companies can yield important insights about your own efficiencies – and ultimately, competitiveness. But bench-marking also has its limits. When you ignore the differentiated output that internal support or shared services groups provide, such straight-across cost or numeric comparisons become meaningless. Today’s successful support unit earns its keep by being a trusted partner to the business units it serves.
(a) Thus, all so-called virtues of benchmarking turn out to be professed rather than actualized.
(b) So, comparing its results to those in a benchmarking survey is counterproductive.
(c) Thus, such unit’s displayed efficiency is but a relative concept.
(d) Thus, the parameters of benchmarking are, though postulated scientifically, are illusory.
(e) None of these.

Practice More Questions of English for Competitive Exams:

Solutions

S1. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct order to form a logical paragraph is GDFEBCA

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct order to form a logical paragraph is GDFEBCA

S3. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct order to form a logical paragraph is GDFEBCA

S4. Ans.(e)
Sol. The correct order to form a logical paragraph is GDFEBCA
S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct order to form a logical paragraph is GDFEBCA

S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. You cannot solve from above. Find the last sentence taking “internally too” as clue.

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. DACB is correct order.

S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. While A makes combination with (i), B makes with (vi).

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. A which makes combination with (i) should be followed by BD.

S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. DC form a combination (internal recognition) and A makes combination with (vi) – ‘as a whole’, ‘in a single’.

S11. Ans.(b)
Sol. “Full engagement implies a fundamental shift in the way we live our lives.” is the most suitable conclusion to the paragraph.

S12. Ans.(a)
Sol. “That is why, even though the concept of strategy is rooted in stability, so much of the study of strategy focuses on change.” concludes the paragraph appropriately.

S13. Ans.(c)
Sol. “A leader is often a visualiser and knows the propriety and possibility of a particular job getting executed.” is the only conclusion which fits to the meaning of the paragraph.

S14. Ans.(d)
Sol. “People have realized that the political tantrum called election can never help fulfill their dreams.” concludes the given paragraph more appropriately than other options.

S15. Ans.(b)
Sol. “So, comparing its results to those in a benchmarking survey is counterproductive.” is the only concluding sentence which makes the paragraph meaningful.

Practice with Online Test Series for Bank Mains 2021:

• Bank Test Pack Online Test Series
• RRB PO Mains Online Coaching Classes

Click Here to Register for Bank Exams 2020 Preparation Material